CW: My view on Aristotelian powers is that they cannot be given a dispositional analysis. (Other Aristotle scholars think of powers as dispositions so this is at one level a debate about interpretation.) To say that x has the power to phi does not mean simply that x is disposed to phi under certain conditions. However, one of the factors in my rejection of the dispositional interpretation of Aristotelian powers is the role of teleology in his understanding of powers. Potentiality/Powers are teleologically directed towards their activity for Aristotle, and it is this directedness that is lost in a dispositional analysis. I have a hunch that Aristotelian teleology is not something that contemporary power theorists would find very attractive, but I would be interested in knowing whether I’m right about that.